No. of questions -150
Time - 150 min
Negative marking - - 0.25
Q. 1-20- Pedagogy
Q. 21-60-Chemistry
Q. 61-105 - Botany
Q. 106 - 150 - Zoology
2.
What is an example of a cognitive skill that may develop through maturation?
3.
Which of the following is an example of how maturation affects the timing of learning?
4.
Which of the following is a factor that can influence learners' motivation to engage in a learning activity?
5.
What is Universal Design for Learning (UDL)?
6.
Which of the following is an example of an inclusive language practice?
7.
What is the aim of inclusive education?
8.
How can inclusive education be promoted at the policy level?
9.
What are some common examples of formative assessment?
10.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of summative assessments?
11.
What is the purpose of a curriculum-based measurement (CBM) assessment?
12.
What is the main goal of a diagnostic assessment?
13.
Who typically creates the content of standardized tests?
14.
Which of the following is an example of a closedended test item?
15.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of teachermade tests?
16.
What is one advantage of standardized tests over teacher-made tests?
17.
Teachers should present information to the students clearly and in interesting way, and relate this new information to the things students
18.
According to John Dewey, school is a __________ institution, and education is a __________ process.
19.
According to John Dewey, schools must prepare students for
20.
Responses that produce a satisfying effect in a particular situation become __________ to occur again in that situation.
21.
The gas which is present in both the natural gas and the bio-gas is-
22.
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known as-
23.
The helical structure of protein is stabilized by
24.
Zinc Phosphide is commonly used as-
25.
Fabric made from .......... does not get wrinkled easily.
26.
Which of the following gas is used to destroy the microbes?
27.
Hydrochloric acid is also known as-
28.
Oxide of which of the following will turn red litmus blue?
29.
Among these which one is a mild acid
30.
X-rays cannot penetrate through a sheet of:
31.
How many electrons can fit into the orbitals that comprise the 3rd quantum shell?
32.
The possibility of finding an electron in an orbital was conceived by:
33.
The number of vacant orbitals of element with atomic number 14 is:
34.
A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs a photon. The maximum energy of such a photon is:
35.
Energy of H-atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV, hence energy in the second excited state is
36.
Electron deficient species are known as:
37.
If the bond length and dipole moment of a diatomic molecule are 1.25 A and 1.0 D respectively, what is the per cent ionic character of the bond?
38.
Which of the following atoms has minimum covalent radius?
39.
Unusually high boiling point of water is result of
40.
Which of the following period of Modern periodic table contain lanthanoids?
41.
Which was the incomplete period in the long form of the Modern period table?
42.
Which of the following period of the long form of Modern periodic table contains Actinoid?
43.
The number of lanthanoids and actinoid respectively present in the sixth and seventh periods are:
44.
Zinc-copper couple that can be used as a reducing agent is obtained by:
45.
The neutral wax called Ozokerite found near petroleum well is a mixture of:
46.
Petroleum refining is:
47.
Which among the following are used as catalyst in cracking?
48.
Wolframite ore is separated from tin stone ore by the process of
49.
Iron ores are dressed by:
50.
Which process is used for the extraction of metals from their sulphide ores?
51.
Refractory materials are used for the construction of furnaces because they:
52.
A partially dried clay mineral contains 8% water. The original sample contained 12% water and 45% silica. The % of silica in the partially dried sample is nearly:
53.
What is the weight of oxygen that is required for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene?
54.
A sample of copper sulphate pentahydrate contains 8.64 g of oxygen. How many gram of Cu is present in this sample? (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.6, S = 32.06, O = 16)
55.
Which has maximum number of atoms?
56.
Which of the following compounds exhibits rotamers?
57.
0.5 g of hydrocarbon gave 0.9 g water on combustion. The percentage of carbon hydrocarbon is
58.
The racemisation of optically active compounds is driven by :
59.
Ammonia molecule is :
60.
A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by
61.
Red rust of tea is caused by parasitic
62.
Cyanobacteria are classified under
63.
Laminarin and fucus belong to
64.
Autotrophic thallophytes are called as
65.
The first plants evolved from an organism muck lke …
66.
Bryophytes have life cycles tha depend on what for reproduction ?
67.
Irish moss is a member of
68.
Angiosperms: roots : phaeophyceae:
69.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
70.
The hormone responsible for apical dominance is________
71.
Which of the hormone promotes bolting ?
72.
The hormone which can replace is vernalization is _________
73.
This hormone is not a growth inhibitor
74.
Indole-3-acetic acid is the most common naturally occurring plant hormone of_________ class
75.
_______ is a gaseous plant hormone
76.
Electrons from exited chlorophyll molecules of photosystem II are accepted first by:
77.
In cells, ATP is synthesized in:
78.
Photorespiration does NOT occur in:
79.
The law of limiting factors is given by:
80.
Hill reaction requires:
81.
In PSI, the reaction centre the chlorophyll 'a' has an absorption peak at:
82.
Light reaction otherwise called as:
83.
Which of the following is not a method by which pathogens affect the yield of crops?
84.
Which of these is a bacterial disease that affects the plants?
85.
Tikka disease is related to which of the following crops?
86.
Which of the following is not related to Rots?
87.
Plant diseases are broadly classified into nonparasitic and parasitic.
88.
Which of the following is not true regarding Chlorosis?
89.
Parthenium can be controlled by using bio-agents like:
90.
What is sexual reproduction?
91.
Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian follicle?
92.
How many daughter cells are produced when a bacterial cell reproduces asexually?
93.
The ‘eye’ of the potato plant is what
94.
A sexual reproduction produces offspring’s with variations.
95.
What are the 3 phases in a life cycle (in order)?
96.
Which of the following undergoes binary fission?
98.
In angiosperms, vascular tissue develop from
99.
In arborescent monocots stem, a secondary cambium grows in
100.
The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem are called
101.
Vascular bundles in which cambium is present between xylem and phloem is called as
102.
Specialised parenchymatous cells, which are closely associated with sieve tube elements is
103.
In monocotyledons, guard cell of stomata are
104.
Exarch xylem is present in
105.
Which type of vascular bundle is shown in figure below
106.
among the chiggers, a group of mites only 3 species were known in 1900 and in 1966 ?
107.
Sibley (1954) called these species like entities as_____ which are discernible on the basis of partial reproductive isolation externally contrasting with free gene exchange internally ?
108.
_____is used in reference to two or more related species which occupy the same macrohabitat ?
109.
Species has three separate functions. It forms a ?
110.
The lungs expand in inspiration/inhalation because -
111.
The chamber formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by sternum, laterally by ribs and on the lower side by dome-shaped diaphragm is-
112.
Which of the following statements about the mechanism of ventilation/breathing is false?
113.
The process of exhalation I expiration is begun mainly due to -
114.
Whose main function is to engulf of antigen antibody complexes?
115.
Who is called as macro policemen of the body
116.
Which of the following does not produced by basophile?
117.
Which enzyme prevent allergic reaction?
118.
Which is not a part of neuron?
119.
How many types of neurons are seen?
120.
The terminal branched ends of axon is known as
121.
Where bipolar neurons are found?
122.
The genetic material of prokaryotic cells is called:-
123.
Which structures are responsible for lipid synthesis in animal cells?
124.
Which of the following stores oils and fats?
125.
Which of these structures are absent in eukaryotes?
126.
Cellular organelles with single membrane are:
127.
Plant capture only ______ of the PAR and this amount of energy sustains the entire living world
128.
Producers in an aquatic ecosystem
129.
Generally, primary consumers will be
130.
The green plant in the ecosystem are called
131.
Renal corpuscle or Malpighian body is-
132.
Which one of the following is the structural and functional unit of kidney?
133.
Which one of the following is a tube that carries urine from kidney to the urinary bladder?
134.
Inner to the hilum of kidney is a broad funnel shaped space called-
135.
During the study of inheritance of one character in F2 generation, Mendel obtained phenotype in
136.
The first hybrid generation of Mendel’s experiment is known as
137.
The slightly different forms of the same genes are called
138.
The ‘factors’ of Mendel are today known as
139.
Which technique was used by Mendel during his experiments on pea plant?
140.
The part of the oviduct that joins the uterus is
141.
The funnel-shaped part of Fallopian tube that remains closer to the ovary is -
142.
The inner glandular layer that lines the uterine cavity is
143.
The uterus is also called
144.
Liver is situated in –
145.
Hepatocytes secrete –
146.
Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of liver?
147.
In adult human liver weighs –
148.
What were the first sole living molecules according to oparin?
149.
Protobiont was formed by a cluster of _______
150.
Who among the scientist did not prove that RNA molecules have enzymatic activity?
