RHT Main (CBZ) Mock Test – 3

No. of questions -150

Time - 150 min

Negative marking - - 0.25

Q. 1-20- Pedagogy

Q. 21-60-Chemistry

Q.  61-105 - Botany

Q. 106 - 150 - Zoology

1. 
What is unconditional positive regard in Rogers' humanistic approach?
2. 
Piaget's theory of cognitive development includes which of the following stages:
3. 
According to Piaget, cognitive development occurs as a result of:
4. 
Which of the following is NOT one of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?
5. 
Which of the following is a benefit of learningcentric learning?
6. 
What is the benefit of using interactive whiteboards in the classroom?
7. 
Which of the following is an example of a visual aid that can be used to promote cultural awareness?
8. 
What is the ultimate goal of using TLMs and AV aids to address classroom diversity?
9. 
What is formative assessment?
10. 
How can educators use concept assessment to tailor their instructional methods?
11. 
What is concept assessment?
12. 
What is the purpose of diagnostic assessment?
13. 
Which of the following is an advantage of open-ended questions in test construction?
14. 
What is the purpose of item analysis in test construction?
15. 
What is the purpose of a rubric in test construction?
16. 
What is the purpose of standardization in test construction?
17. 
The more often a particular ability is used the __________ it becomes.
18. 
The longer a particular ability is unused the __________ it becomes.
19. 
The word “Pedagogy” means?
20. 
Pedagogy is the study of?
21. 
Consider the following-

1. Nucleic acids
2. Carbohydrates
3. Proteins
A virus is made up of which of the above-Deselect Answer

22. 
What is the full form of PVC?
23. 
Which fibre is used for making bristles of brushes.
24. 
.............. is obtained by evaporation of sea.
25. 
Fire extinguishers emit which gas?
26. 
'Saponification' is a process by which-
27. 
Which acid is present in tomatoes?
28. 
Which acid is used to remove Iron and rust stains from clothes?
29. 
What is the chemical name of quick lime?
30. 
The wave nature of electron is verified by
31. 
The number of electrons in a neutral atom of an element is equal to its:
32. 
Threshold wavelength depends upon :
33. 
An electron jumps from an outer orbit to an inner orbit with an energy difference of 3.0eV. What will be the wavelength of the line emitted?
34. 
The nucleus of an atom contains
35. 
Energy of photon of visible light is
36. 
As the number of orbit increase from the nucleus, the difference between the adjacent energy levels:
37. 
C − Cl bond is stronger than C – I bond, because
38. 
Which of the following pairs will from the most stable ionic bond?
39. 
The ICl molecule is:
40. 
Silicon has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit. In forming the bond:
41. 
Lothar Mayer curve was plotted between
42. 
Which shows the demerit of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
43. 
Which shows merit of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
44. 
How many elements were placed in VIII group of Mendelev’s periodic table ?
45. 
Polyethylene is a resin obtained by polymerization of:
46. 
Cyclohexane a hydrocarbon, floats on water because:
47. 
A mixture of nitrogen and acetylene, on passing electric spark through it gives:
48. 
Which of the following are produced from coaltar?
49. 
The existence of two or more crystalline forms of the same substance is called:
50. 
In alumino-thermite process, aluminium is used as
51. 
Forth floatation process for the concentration of the ores is an illustration of the practical application of
52. 
Which element is present in pitch blende?
53. 
Equivalent weight of an acid
54. 
Which of the following is not a mixture?
55. 
The per cent loss in weight after heating a pure sample of potassium chlorate (mol. wt. = 122.5) will be:
56. 
Out of 1.0 g dioxygen, 1.0 g (atomic) oxygen and 1.0 g ozone, the maximum number of molecules are contained in
57. 
Lactic acid in which a methyl group, a hydroxyl group, a carboxylic acid group and a hydrogen atom are attached to a central carbon atom shows optical isomerism due to the molecular geometry at the :
58. 
Which of the following process is suitable for the purification of aniline?
59. 
Number of tertiary carbon atoms in tertiary butyl alcohol is :
60. 
Maleic and fumaric acids are :
61. 
The giant red wood tree is
62. 
A vascular cryptogam is
63. 
Thallus of riccia is
64. 
In cycas the type of root present is called as
65. 
Angiosperms: roots : phaeophyceae:
66. 
Which among the following belong to spheropsida?
67. 
Autotrophic thallophytes are called as
68. 
Who isolated the hormone auxin?
69. 
Movement of auxin is centripetal
70. 
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
71. 
Phototropic and Geotropic movements are linked to_________
72. 
The hormone responsible for apical dominance is________
73. 
The concentration of auxin is highest in________
74. 
The hormone which can replace is vernalization is _________
75. 
Electrons from exited chlorophyll molecules of photosystem II are accepted first by:
76. 
Calvin cycle is discovered by:
77. 
In sugarcane, CO2 is fixed in malic acid with the help of enzyme:
78. 
Dark fixation of CO2 in CAM plants is called ossification because it produces:
79. 
Hill reaction requires:
80. 
The substances that have an ability to absorb light at different specific wavelength are:
81. 
Electrons from exited chlorophyll molecules of photosystem II are accepted first by:
82. 
Which of the following crops is related to Karnal bunt disease?
83. 
The disease related with apple is knoen as:
84. 
Tikka disease is related to which of the following crops?
85. 
Red rot is disease of the following crop :
86. 
Tea's red rust disease is caused by which of the following?
87. 
Which of the following is not a method of the perpetuation of disease by the pathogen?
88. 
Which of the following is not a method by which pathogens affect the yield of crops?
89. 
Which of the following is not a method of reducing total biomass of crop?
90. 
What are the 3 phases in a life cycle (in order)?
91. 
Budding is a method of asexual reproduction found in ______.
92. 
Which of the following undergoes binary fission?
93. 
The most critical event in sexual reproduction is:
94. 
There is no natural death in singlecelled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because
95. 
Which factor is responsible for the changes in the 3 phases in a life cycle?
96. 
Which of the following is a hermaphrodite?
97. 
Ginger is vegetative propagated through:
98. 
Which epidermis of the leaf contains more stomata?
99. 
Bulliform or motor cells are present in
100. 
Exarch xylem is present in
101. 
The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem are called
102. 
In arborescent monocots stem, a secondary cambium growing in the following type of vascular bundle is seen in
103. 
Jute fibers deteriorate because they have
104. 
Specialised parenchymatous cells, which are closely associated with sieve tube elements is
105. 
In arborescent monocots stem, a secondary cambium grows in
106. 
The term 'pseudopodia' is related to which one of the following organisms?
107. 
Which is the national aquatic animal of India?
108. 
Radial symmetry is found in
109. 
Which of the following is a phyla of plant and animal kingdom respectively?
110. 
Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at _______thoracic vertebra.
111. 
Incomplete cartilaginous rings support all of the following except-
112. 
Which of the following has the smallest diameter?
113. 
Lungs are comprised by –
114. 
Whose RBC is nucleated?
115. 
Smallest RBC is seen in
116. 
Which instrument is used to count the RBC number in blood?
117. 
Increase in number of RBC is called
118. 
Whose terminal end is known as synaptic nerve
119. 
Efferent nerve fibres transmits impulses from
120. 
Impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles relays by
121. 
Impulses from CNS to smooth muscles and involuntary organs relays by
122. 
Polysomes have 2 components. One is ribosome while another is:
123. 
Longest portion of bacterial flagella is:
124. 
The genetic material of prokaryotic cells is called:-
125. 
Which of the following is not a function of mesosomes?
126. 
Detritus is/are
127. 
The process of breaks down complex organic matter into inorganic substances is called as
128. 
Bacteria and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as
129. 
________ break down detritus into smaller particles
130. 
Excretion of nitrogenous products in semisolid forms by –
131. 
NH3 is converted into urea in –
132. 
Which of the following groups of animals is uricotelic?
133. 
Least toxic nitrogenous waste is -
134. 
Who proposed the ‘Laws of Inheritance’ in living organisms?
135. 
Genetics is the subject that deals with
136. 
How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?
137. 
Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two
138. 
The vas deferens opens into urethra as
139. 
Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
140. 
The ejaculatory duct transports the sperms to the outside through
141. 
Urethral meatus is/are
142. 
Number of salivary glands present in human being is –
143. 
Parotid glands are located below –
144. 
Which of the following salivary gland is absent in human beings?
145. 
Saliva is secreted by –
146. 
The transformation of silkworms and frog larvae into adults through drastic changes is called:
147. 
Which of the following species of plants has adapted to survive in an environment with little liquid water?
148. 
Which of the following is the third stage in the metamorphosis of a butterfly?
149. 
Which of the following is an example of an alogy?
150. 
What is the distinctive characteristic of ‘marsupials’?
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